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Friday, July 01, 2005

Response to comment left on the 'What is the age of accountability' article

If you take a look at the article from a few days ago on the "age of accountability" you'll find a comment at the bottom left by a reader. (Click on the word "comment" to see it.)

I'll try to address what is written there, as it frankly is confusing at best and deserves an opportunity for clarification by the person who anonymously left it.

I'll give you the full comment first and then explain.

Readers comment on the age of accountability article:

I believe that it's relatively clear in Paul's writings that those that aren't knowledgeable in Christ and have the ability to make a choice between believing in Christ and whatever else awaits us then they are bound by their own beliefs. But they are bound just like any person who has heard of the teachings of Christ. This applies to all "non-believers" or more appropriately titled "the unknowing". I believe that these scriptures apply to those completely alienated from the gospel in some remote portion of the wilderness as much as it applies to those not young enough to counted as "accountable". Which brings up a much more interesting debate; how can "non-christians" or "non-believers" be held accountable when most modern "Christians" are teaching the gospel inadequately?

Not to be unkind, but this comment has some logical problems among other problems.

In this section the writer basically says that all are in the same boat: bound by their beliefs.

I believe that it's relatively clear in Paul's writings that those that aren't knowledgeable in Christ and have the ability to make a choice between believing in Christ and whatever else awaits us then they are bound by their own beliefs. But they are bound just like any person who has heard of the teachings of Christ. This applies to all "non-believers" or more appropriately titled "the unknowing".

Yes and no. All are in the same boat in that in order to gain heaven all must come through Christ by, as Jesus required in John chapter 3, being "born again." Without that new birth no one gains heaven. So yes all are in the same boat.

But people aren't "bound" by their own beliefs per se. There aren't double standards, one set of beliefs for one person and another set of beliefs for different person, each with the ability to gain them entrance into heaven.

Jesus said both that, "You must be born again," and "No one comes to the father but through me." His statements may be true and they may be false. I believe they are true of course, but in terms of what the Bible teaches, there is no doubt that it teaches there is only one way to heaven, and that is through believing in Christ.

(I do understand the idea laid out in the Scriptures that a person who is not a believer in Christ and has not heard of Christ, is still guilty before God; one because they have sinned in reality, and two, because they haven't even kept their own set of beliefs about morality and ethics perfectly. So they are guilty by their own standards let alone God's standards. That may be what the writer is implying, but his last section contradicts that position. I comment about that below.)

The second section of this readers comment says connects the "too young to know" with those "who haven't heard" because they are physically separated from any information about the Gospel.

I believe that these scriptures apply to those completely alienated from the gospel in some remote portion of the wilderness as much as it applies to those not young enough to counted as "accountable".

Of course if the first section above is accurate, as this reader believes (that all are bound by their belief system and thus are in the same boat) then this statement is redundant, unneeded. There is no difference. All are bound by their belief system, whether in a remote location or too young to understand.

Further, while "these scriptures" are mentioned, none are listed, so we have no idea what scripture passages are being spoken of.

The readers final comment appears to collapse his comment in on itself, destroying all logical connections when it says,

Which brings up a much more interesting debate; how can "non-christians" or "non-believers" be held accountable when most modern "Christians" are teaching the gospel inadequately?

If it is true what the reader says in the first section of his comment (that all are in the same boat, bound by their belief system) then his last comment has no logical standing.

It would not matter if the Gospel isn't being presented clearly, using his reasoning in the first section, because all are bound by their belief system anyway. So if Believers foul things up by not explaining the Gospel clearly, the person still in the consideration process is nevertheless bound by their belief system. So what difference does it make?

In the first section of his comment the reader expresses the idea that people ARE bound by their belief system, but in the last section he implies the idea (if not his personal belief) that if the Gospel isn't explained clearly, how can people be held accountable...and another way of saying, "how can they be bound."

I would appreciate clarification from the reader, because what is written in his/her comment doesn't follow logically and is flawed by internal contradictions.